On Tue, 17 May 2005 22:38:29 +0200, Christian =?iso-8859-1?Q?K=F6ttl?=
<[log in to unmask]> wrote:

>The relationship between the Akkadian possessive
>suffixes, personal pronouns and independent
>possessive pronouns is evident when looking at
>the genetive-accusative forms of the personal
>pronouns. As you assume, it is quite
>straightforward.
>
>Singular:
>    Possessive suffix | personal pronoun (Gen.) | possessive pronoun
>1  ja (i:) (?a)        ja:ti                     ju:m (m.) jattum (f.)
>2m ka                  ka:ta                     ku:m (m.)
>2f ki                  ka:ti                     kattum (f.)
>3m Su                  Sua:ti                    Su:m (m.)
>3f Si                  Sia:ti                    Sattum (f.)

Also, as I think you mentioned, the verbal object suffixes are similar to
(if not the same as) the possessive suffixes.

There seems to be a suffix -a:t in the oblique pronominal forms.

>A similar relationship can be found in the plural.
>
>Btw, the Akkadian accusative suffixes, used to
>indicate a pronominal object by attaching to the
>verb, are similar to the possessive suffixes in
>the singular, but to the personal pronoun
>genetive-accusative in the plural. So in Akkadian
>it is obvious that those suffixes are really just
>the pronouns attached to nouns or verbs, resp..
>
>In Middle Babylonian (and later on), the
>possessive pronouns were replaced by /attu/ + a
>possessive suffix.

It seems that this same element /attu/ is found in the feminine possessive
pronouns.  Or is this just coincidence?

>In the course of time, the pronominal suffixes
>and the pronouns diverged. Just two examples for
>development on those suffixes:
>In New Babylonian (10 - 7 cent. BC)/-i:/has
>developed into /-a:/; /-Su/ often becomes /-S/.
>Personal pronouns changed as well, but
>differently.

With the former, was /i:/ > /a:/ a common change with New Babylonian?

>May this post be more informative than my last one. ;-)

They have both been informative, thanks. :)

- Rob