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On Mon, 31 Jul 2000 07:43:31 +0300, Dan Sulani <[log in to unmask]> wrote: >So what was the pronounciation in Alexandria at the time >of the Septuagint? A good question. A few centuries later, Coptic mixes the Greek <y> with short <e> (= epsilon) in loanwords. Which seems to reflect a feature of the Greek dialect of Egypt. In Mo:y"se:s the <o:y"> didn't form a diphthong, at any rate, as evidenced by the borrowings from Greek into nearly all other languages. Which is important since Greek did have the diphthong <o:u> in its inventory. On Sun, 30 Jul 2000 12:07:03 +0300, Dan Sulani <[log in to unmask]> wrote: >The name "m-sh-h" is vowelled with a "cholam" and a "segol": >mem-cholam-shin-segol-heh. That is, without a vov? Sorry for my ignorance... > The, earlier, Septuagint version, >as I understand it, seems to always have "omega-upsilon" >where the Masoretic formulation uses "cholam". Any other examples, BTW? What stands in Hebrew for the Greek <o:> in Io:nas, Io:se:ph, Abessalo:m, etc.? Basilius