From: "Gary Shannon" <[log in to unmask]>
Sent: Sunday, October 01, 2006 7:51 PM
> Does a conlang need the infinitive? I don't think so. In
> English, sentences can
> be analyzed in a way that does not even admit the
> existence of the infinitive.
> Take the sentence:
> I want to go home.
Ayeri doesn't use an infinitive but instead uses the
benefactive ending _-yam_ to cover gerunds as well as modal
verbs in some cases. The sentence above would be
Ang no saráyin rangea.
This sentence uses the whatchamacallit _no_, which is the
uninflected stem of the word for 'to go'. You might want to
call it an infinitive, but this construction doesn't apply
to *all* verbs, but only to 'to want', 'must', 'can', 'may'
and probably to a couple of others I don't know off-hand.
I want him to go home:
Noayang saraiyáng rangea.
Want.1s.A go.3s.A home.LOC.
German uses a very similar construction:
Ich möchte, dass er nach Hause geht.
I would-want, that he to home goes.
There are no infinitives used *here*. Of course, German
*has* infinitives, but it doesn't use one in this case.
*"Ich will ihn nach Hause zu gehen" is awfully wrong, but
this would be a one-to-one translation of the English
"Miranayam kepauarà naranoaris." (Kalvin nay Hobbes)
Siruena, Nankyu 5, 2316 ya 29:48:26 pd