Just one last thought on this issue....maybe I am a little slow but I never
realy got it: what is the statistical chance of a second febrile seizure (
6 month later) not being caused by bacterial infection and /or meningitis
compared to the first one?
I think what it matters is how the child looks like and not the PMH.
Febrile seizure by definition has to be short, early in the febrile
illness( < 24 hours) brief and generalized, no or little postictal stage.
If this was the case and the child is happy, pink and playful I do not
think LP needs to be performed.
I am also wondering what is the incidence of meningitis presenting with
only seizures (and fever) beyond the first few month of age?
Steven Szabo, M.D.
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