Tom Wier wrote:
> Nik Taylor wrote:
> > There are also partial translations, for instance England --> Sp.
> > Inglatierra, where the -land was translated into -tierra (but why Eng
> > --> Ingla, perhaps descended from Latin "anglicus"?).
> The Angles called their own land "Englaland", so that might have somethingto do with it.
> Was there ever any rule in Spanish that /e/ --> /i/ / _[nasal]?
> I know "Ingles" is like that too, and I feel that this too was a loan because
> of the -es part...
Well. "Inglaterra" is "tierra de los anglos", where "anglo" is the name of the people (Like
Anglo-Saxen) I've always wonder why the /a/-/i/ shift but I guess it has something to do with
> > But, does anyone
> > know *why*, for instance, Ireland --> Sp. Irlanda, and not *Irtierra?
> Languages are erratic like that, in part because different speakershave different interests
> and different levels of linguistic perception.
Probably Ireland was not very important to Spaniards or other Spanish speakers when
"Inglaterra" became part of the language. As a later borrowing "Ireland" became "Irlanda" as
The -landia has become an productive suffix in Spanish:
Disneylandia (from Disneyland)
Patolandia (where Donald Duck lives in)
Animalandia (TV program in Colombia)
Carlos Eugenio Thompson Pinzsn
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