In a message dated 7/19/2000 1:12:23 AM Eastern Daylight Time, [log in to unmask] writes: << >whether the Afer would use the verb iscijare for languages (perhaps >itejulegare, Lat. intellegere? I'm trying to avoid polysemy). What's wrong with _sapere_? Although this unique (I think) retention of scio would be noteworthy. Any Berber influence? If this is taking place around Augustine's time, don't forget the Vandals. Also, pre-Islamic, so probably no vast Arabic influence for a while. Do we know the ethnic make up of the native North Africans? Phoenician + Berber, or what? >> They would be classified as Phoenicians, right? They were there from about 1100 BC- 842 BC as Phoenicians and the Carthaginians (I think thats how you spell it in English?), their descendants, held most of the northern coast in the 200s BC. Perhaps a little Berber mixed in, but didn't the Berbers reach their peak of influence in the Renaissance?