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In a message dated 7/19/2000 1:12:23 AM Eastern Daylight Time,
[log in to unmask] writes:

<< >whether the Afer would use the verb iscijare for languages (perhaps
 >itejulegare, Lat. intellegere? I'm trying to avoid polysemy).
     What's wrong with _sapere_?  Although this unique (I think) retention of
 scio would be noteworthy.  Any Berber influence?   If this is taking place
 around Augustine's time, don't forget the Vandals.  Also, pre-Islamic, so
 probably no vast Arabic influence for a while.  Do we know the ethnic make
 up of the native North Africans? Phoenician + Berber, or what? >>

They would be classified as Phoenicians, right? They were there from about
1100 BC- 842 BC as Phoenicians and the Carthaginians (I think thats how you
spell it in English?), their descendants, held most of the northern coast in
the 200s BC. Perhaps a little Berber mixed in, but didn't the Berbers reach
their peak of influence in the Renaissance?