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>Yesterday we were reviewing the passive voice in my French class, and
>one of the points the teacher made quite emphatically is that the active
>voice is preferred.  I know that this is also the case with English,
>although I could never understand it.  The only explanation I've ever
>gotten is that it's not as powerful as active but I don't really buy
>that.  Are any of your conlangs prejudiced against the passive voice?
>Or any other voice for that matter?  (Mine aren't)

There's no such formation as the passive voice, although there are
formations that mimic it. For example:

Asajar      kaemi          jbujan.
asaj    ar  kae mi         jbu     jan
excl-we ERG do  1pPlPstSim mistake PlABS
"We made mistakes."

Jbujan kaemi asajar.
"Mistakes were made by us."

Jbujan kaemi.
"Mistakes were made."

Blessed be,                        Écartons ces romans
Matt McLauchlin                          qu'on appèle systèmes,
GM18, Montreal, Canada             Et pour nous éléver
English/français/esperanto               descendons dans nous-mêmes.
icq: 4420218                               -Voltaire
http://www.crosswinds.net/~montrealais

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