>Yesterday we were reviewing the passive voice in my French class, and >one of the points the teacher made quite emphatically is that the active >voice is preferred. I know that this is also the case with English, >although I could never understand it. The only explanation I've ever >gotten is that it's not as powerful as active but I don't really buy >that. Are any of your conlangs prejudiced against the passive voice? >Or any other voice for that matter? (Mine aren't) There's no such formation as the passive voice, although there are formations that mimic it. For example: Asajar kaemi jbujan. asaj ar kae mi jbu jan excl-we ERG do 1pPlPstSim mistake PlABS "We made mistakes." Jbujan kaemi asajar. "Mistakes were made by us." Jbujan kaemi. "Mistakes were made." Blessed be, Écartons ces romans Matt McLauchlin qu'on appèle systèmes, GM18, Montreal, Canada Et pour nous éléver English/français/esperanto descendons dans nous-mêmes. icq: 4420218 -Voltaire http://www.crosswinds.net/~montrealais _________________________________________________________________________ Get Your Private, Free E-mail from MSN Hotmail at http://www.hotmail.com. Share information about yourself, create your own public profile at http://profiles.msn.com.