I'm trying to find out information about the Spanish pronoun "se" when used as an indirect pronoun. For example: Yo se lo mandé "I sent it to him" All Spanish learners have heard their teachers say that the pronoun "le" magically turns into "se" when followed by lo/la/los/las. Couldn't there be something more to it. I was thinking that perhaps "se" is a descendant of "ipsi" the dative of "ipse". Any help would be greatly appreciated. Thanks! Elliott.