On Tue, 19 Dec 2000 16:34:08 -0600 Eric Christopherson <[log in to unmask]> writes: > That's a good question, which I have never seen asked or answered. I > remember that a while ago on the list someone (Steg I think) was > wondering > how <ojala'> came from <inshallah>; since then I've wondered if > maybe the > *spoken* Arabic phrase in Spain was something like /unSalla/ or > /uSSalla/, > whereas /inSallah/ was the Classical Arabic. I know that a > substitution of > /u/ for /i/ happens in some other words in spoken (non-Classical) > forms, so > that could be the reason for the /o/ in Spanish. But I digress. The > point > I'm trying to make is that perhaps the Arabic loanwords in Spanish > were in > fact from a spoken and non-Classical variety. > > -- > Eric Christopherson / *Aiworegs Ghristobhorosyo - I think that probably was me....and i think i may have another piece of evidence for it being non-Classical. I once learned a medieval Spaniard Hebrew poem which had the Arabic introduction _wlh fy albHr ayDa_, which the book translated into Hebrew as _velu `al odot hayam `od_, which (if i understand the word _lu_ correctly) means something like "and as if more about the sea." Looking in an Arabic dictionary, i found the words _fii_, _(al-)baHr_, and _ayDan_, which confirmed the translation, but i couldn't find a meaning of _wlh_ that approached the meaning of _velu_. I did, however, find something like _walaw_ that was similar, so i hypothsized that the _wlh_/_wlw_ difference was due to dialectal differences. -Stephen (Steg) "and for you i will also give... a ferret."