John Cowan wrote: > > > [...] I thought about that too and figured it > > was just because it seems more "natural" to spell final /k/ with <ck>, >at > > least after lax vowels. Of course there are lots of exceptions in >English, > > but I think most of them are loanwords, such as the very popular -ic > >Most of which once had -ick, as in musick, critick. Removing this -k >was one of the reforms Dr. Johnson made in his dictionary, on the >grounds that k was a "Saxon" letter. On a related note; why is it that "k" have become the standard representation of /k/ in the Germanic and Slav languages that're written in the Roman alphabet when the Romance languages mostly use "c", like Latin did? Of course, English takes a sort of middle ground in that it happily uses both "k" and "c" alot - do this have anything to do with the heavy Romance influence on it in medieval times? Andreas _________________________________________________________________________ Get Your Private, Free E-mail from MSN Hotmail at http://www.hotmail.com.