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> -----Original Message-----
> From: Elliott Lash [mailto:[log in to unmask]]
> Sent: Thursday, May 31, 2001 2:14 PM

> Once I got going, it got easier. Canotaea uses a verb
> structure similar to Spanish, so:
>
>  Does the "verb structure similar to spanish" mean that it's
> basically an inflecting language in regards to verbs? Since
> it looks like to behaves like Latin, or Russian or any of the
> other heavily inflected languages I know.

Good question, I know almost nothing about Latin.  But I did take Spanish in
school, and am familiar with verb endings in that way.

>
> -nd = infinitive stem
>
> -me = 1st pers. sing. pres.
> -te = 2nd pers. sing pres.
> -se = 3rd pers. sing. pres.
> -mese = 1st pers. plural pres.
> -tese = 2nd pers. plural pres.
> -these = 3rd pers. plural pres.
>
>  Why not -sese for the 3rd pers. plural (if it's analogous to
> the other persons, which might not be the case).

I toyed with -sese, and thought -these would be easier to say.
>
> (A little primitive, I know.)  Canotaea only has 2 verbs at
> present: ond (to be) and iwynd (to love).  It turns out that
> iwynd loses the y (pronounced /I/) when conjugated: aet iweme
> (I love you).  That makes it an irregular verb, right?
>
> aet = you?

Yes!

> And also, it looks like y > e and is not lost. This feature
> *could* be irregular, but then again, if you had a class of
> verbs whose the infinitive was -ynd which formed the present
> as -e+personal endings, then it wouldn't be irregular :)
> Either way, I like it.

Hadn't considered that.  Thanks!
>
> Very exited by all this, must keep going.
>
>  Very excited also!! please do keep going :)
>
>
>
>  Elliott
>