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> Date:         Mon, 19 Nov 2001 08:28:49 -0500
> From: Muke Tever <[log in to unmask]>
>
> From: "Lars Henrik Mathiesen" <[log in to unmask]>
> > IPA [w] isn't just a labial approximant, so it isn't the right
> > symbol to start from when transcribing a labial-retroflex one.
>
> But I do get an idea that the sound is also velarized, hence [w]
> feels righter. (However, I may be misinterpreting the retroflexion
> as velarization?)

I can't really imagine how the tongue can make both a retroflex and a
velar approximation at the same time, but I have to admit that I'm out
of my depth here --- I think we need someone who has seen measurements
of this stuff.

[We're talking about the sound in Muke's English that he transcribes
as [w`] in [t_Sw`{~sk...] = <transcription>].

Lars Mathiesen (U of Copenhagen CS Dep) <[log in to unmask]> (Humour NOT marked)