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(I haven't followed this thread too closely, so if this point has been
raised already, my apologies.)

On Mon, 22 Apr 2002 01:14:46 -0400 Roger Mills <[log in to unmask]> writes:
> In most of Argentina (I should say, in Buenos Aires) both <ll> and
> <y> are
> [Z]; interestingly, Pablo Flores always used [S] instead......a
> regional -
> personal - generational difference?  Or a change since 30 years
> ago?

Didn't that happen before as Portuguese developed into its own language with
|ch| /S/ where Castilian has |ll|?