Muke Tever wrote: >From: "Raymond Brown" <[log in to unmask]> >> >This one /j\/ isn't a voiced, palatal stop, but a voiced, palatal fricative. >> >> Yep, [j\] is the voiced equivalent of German ich-laut. IME the Spanish /j/ >> is often pronounced this way, at least by Spanish speakers from Spain (I >> don't know about Latin American varieties). I'd be suprised if any >> language had /j\/ and /j/ as separate phonemes. > >Well, I usually hear [j\] for consonantal /j/ (spelled <ll> and <y>), but not >vocalic /j/ (spelled <i> before another vowel). > >So...some might have a minimal pair between <hiena> "hyena" and <llena> "full" >(first pair that comes in my dictionary). > This matter was recently mentioned on the "Ideolengua" Spanish list-- if I read everything aright, there is another minimal contrast <hierba> 'grass' vs. <yerba> same word, different spelling (I think more used in Latin America). In most of Argentina (I should say, in Buenos Aires) both <ll> and <y> are [Z]; interestingly, Pablo Flores always used [S] instead......a regional - personal - generational difference? Or a change since 30 years ago?