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That strikes me as unlikely.  Didn't English speakers use the past-is-behind
and future-is-ahead metaphors before the scientific and industrial
revolutions?  (And most English speakers couldn't identify Hegelian
philosophy if their lives depended on it.  It's hardly likely to have
influenced oridnary speech.)

In a message dated 6/30/2002 3:43:27 PM Eastern Daylight Time,
[log in to unmask] writes:


>
> >So why *do* we see "what happened before now" as abaft us, and not before
> >us?
> >
>
> I think Hegelian philosophy has a lot to do with it, as did the scientific
> and industrial revolutions and the subsequent expectation of progress that
> came with these things.   . . .
> Andy
>