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Hello,

> That leads me to the question: what does the group think of the
> theory that the insular Celtic languages borrowed mutation from a
> substrate language (Pictish, for example)?

Looks implausible to me. Anyway, I've been thinking that one can find
proof that the fortes/lenes behaviour leading to mutations in Celtic in
the disturbingly similar behaviour of intervocalic consonants in Spanish
and Welsh. Could Spanish be essentially Vulgar Latin with a Celtiberian
substrate?

Pavel
--
Pavel Iosad               [log in to unmask]

Is mall a mharcaicheas am fear a bheachdaicheas
                 --Scottish proverb