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----- Original Message -----
From: "Elyse Grasso" <[log in to unmask]>
To: <[log in to unmask]>
Sent: Monday, March 31, 2003 6:25 PM
Subject: Re: Rs


> On Monday 31 March 2003 08:46 am, Joe wrote:
> > ----- Original Message -----
> > From: "Chris Bates" <[log in to unmask]>
> > To: <[log in to unmask]>
> > Sent: Monday, March 31, 2003 2:45 PM
> > Subject: Rs
> >
> >
> > > Why does english not use any r sound after a vowel? I mean, r can
> only
> > > occur if it is followed by another vowel, "or", "ar" "er" "ur" etc
> > > normally represent long vowel sounds, and "ir" represents two vowel
> > > sounds if i'm not confused. It just seems strange... and its
> slightly
> > > irritating since I'm trying to learn spanish and I find myself
> utterly
> > > incapable of pronouncing a spanish trilled r, or of using an english
> one
> > > to replace it all the time (since spanish has rs occuring at the end
> of
> > > words and when not followed by a vowel).
> > >
> >
> > This is only true in English English. Most dialects of American
> English have
> > r in all places.  However, in England, we got rid of them, which
> really
> > makes it sound nicer, IMO.
> >
> >
> It's actually more complicated than that: there are American dialects
> that drop the r's, and some that put in extra ones.
> Bostonians 'pahk the cah in Hahvahd yahd' (park the car in Harvard yard)
> Nebraskans "warsh the car" (wash the car)
>
>

That's why I said 'most'.  Incidentally, do Bostonian accents add 'r' on the
end of final schwa, or is that just the Kennedys(I assume his accent is
Bostonian, as he drops rs)?