En réponse à Jake X : >['kr\Istaf r\oUt}: > > Not two syllables: two morae. >Since when did Japanese become Latin? >I didn't think Japanese had a plural in -ae, >or a plural suffix at all for that matter. Since when is the term "mora" Japanese? I thought it was Latin (hence derivation like "moraic"). Actually, the American Heritage dictionary agrees with me on that. "Mora" is a Latin word originally meaning "pause", and in English both "morae" and "moras" are allowed plurals. Christophe Grandsire. http://rainbow.conlang.free.fr You need a straight mind to invent a twisted conlang.