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En réponse à Jake X :

>['kr\Istaf r\oUt}:
> > Not two syllables: two morae.
>Since when did Japanese become Latin?
>I didn't think Japanese had a plural in -ae,
>or a plural suffix at all for that matter.

Since when is the term "mora" Japanese? I thought it was Latin (hence
derivation like "moraic"). Actually, the American Heritage dictionary
agrees with me on that. "Mora" is a Latin word originally meaning "pause",
and in English both "morae" and "moras" are allowed plurals.

Christophe Grandsire.

http://rainbow.conlang.free.fr

You need a straight mind to invent a twisted conlang.