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Quoting Muke Tever <[log in to unmask]>:

> > As far as I can work it out, grammatical change follows phonological
> > change,
> > because the phonemes tend to collide, eg:
> >
> > Latin ending -us loses -s, -um loses -m, degrades to -o
>
> Didn't the -s actually remain for quite awhile?  I know it's still remnant
> in Old French.

It seems not to be gone at all in Spanish - names like "Marcos" is supposed to
be reflexes of nominatives used as vocatives in late Latin. That Spanish
masculines typically nonetheless end in simply -o is supposed to be due to
accusatives simply replacing nominatives for no phonological reason.

                                                Andreas