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----- Original Message -----
From: "Andreas Johansson" <[log in to unmask]>
To: <[log in to unmask]>
Sent: Tuesday, October 28, 2003 9:20 AM
Subject: Re: English Subjunctive


> Quoting Costentin Cornomorus <[log in to unmask]>:
>
> > Not that we can tell, anyway! It [the subjunctive] is identical to
> > the indicative apart from the 3s present and the
> > past of be.
>
> I thought the present subjunctive of "to be" was "be" across the board?

Aye, 'tis.  Of course, 's not really the case anymore.  These days we insist
on using those annoying words like 'if' and 'whether' with the indicative.

English doesn't really have a seperately inflected subjunctive in normal
speech.

>                                                                Andreas
>