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In a message dated 1/10/2004 6:00:45 PM Eastern Standard Time,
[log in to unmask] writes:

>Did <h> become silent in Late Latin before it splintered into the
>Romance languages, or did that development happen independently in
>them later?  I know that it's silent (apart from its use in digraphs)
>in modern French, Spanish, and Italian, and I think in Portuguese . . .

According to _Vulgar Latin_ by Jozsef Herman (Translated by Roger Wright),
the loss of the Latin /h/ phoneme "happened in the Republican period, that is,
even before the Empire".

Doug