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On Sunday, January 25, 2004, at 08:44 PM, John Quijada wrote:

> On Sun, 25 Jan 2004 22:21:54 +0300, Pavel Iosad <[log in to unmask]> wrote:
>
>> On the other hand, _chez_ does look a lot like if it might be descended
>> from _casā_ (ablative, with the Romance ablative shift)? Can anyone
>> confrim/deny?
>
> ------
> You are correct.  French _chez_ is descended from the same Latin root as
> Spanish and Italian _casa_.

Yes, but definitely not from the ablative, as suggested.  That case
disappeared
early on from spoken Latin; grafffiti make this quite clear (and there is
other
evidence).

I'm by no means an expert on Italian, but I have certainly seen 'case'
used like
French 'chez' in forms like 'casa Antonio', 'casa Giovanni' etc. how
common this is,
I don't know.

But 'casa' is used like Fr. 'chez' in Catalan, where it has even fused
with the
definite article, e.g. cal (<-- casa el), cals (<-- casa els) and before
masculine proper names we have 'can' (<-- casa en).

Ray
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