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At 21:00 26.1.2004, Ray Brown wrote:

>Yes, but definitely not from the ablative, as suggested.  That case
>disappeared
>early on from spoken Latin; grafffiti make this quite clear (and there is
>other
>evidence).

What happened to those prepositions that used to
govern the ablative.  Didn't the ablative singular
become homophonous with the accusative in most words
once the accusative -m was lost?  Still the ablative
plural would still be homophonous to the dative and
not the accusative!

Puzzled...



/BP 8^)
--
B.Philip Jonsson mailto:[log in to unmask] (delete X)
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                A h-ammen ledin i phith!                \ \
     __  ____ ____    _____________ ____ __   __ __     / /
     \ \/___ \\__ \  /___  _____/\ \\__ \\ \  \ \\ \   / /
     / /   / /  /  \    / /Melroch\ \_/ // /  / // /  / /
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