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On Sun, 1 Feb 2004, Elliott Lash wrote: > --- Nik Taylor <[log in to unmask]> wrote: > > No. What I'm saying is that you could have a > > language with a rule that > > says "vowels followed by a nasal in the same > > syllable become nasalized", > > a common, but by no means universal, rule, or > > "vowels with a nasal in > > the same syllable become nasalized", but not "vowels > > preceded by a nasal > > become nasalized" > > > > Well...actually, there are languages in which a vowel > followed by a nasal consonant can become nasalized. > Take Sundanese: > > http://hctv.humnet.ucla.edu/departments/linguistics/VowelsandConsonants/appendix/languages/sundanaese/sundanese.html That doesn't contradict Nik. To get something like that, we don't need to get as exotic as Sudanese; my dialect of English pronounces 'now' as [n&~U\], but I nasalise (lowish) vowels before n, too.. Is a word like (hypothetical) 'talin' [talin] or [tali~n]? -- Tristan