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Thomas R. Wier wrote:
> From:    James Worlton <[log in to unmask]>
>
>>OrÄ?lynna finally makes a web presence:
>>
>>I have uploaded a PDF file (2 pages) that describe the verb forms. Verbs
>>inflect for lots of things, in an agglutinative sort of way.
>
>
> Why do you have distinct masculine and feminine first person markers?
> That's rather marked; how'd they arise?
>

They came about as an experiment in a world-view that distinguishes
male/female identity. Instead of having 1 form for 1st and 2nd persons,
and 2 for 3rd (like English) I inverted the idea to distinguish m/f in
1st and 2nd, but not 3rd. They didn't evolve from any ancestral lang or
anything. It may be interesting to try to reconstruct an etymology for
this, but that is beyond my scope at the moment.
-------------
In response to Mark Reed:
I didn't know that Arabic did this, but if it does it's nice to know
that its an ANADEWism. :)

--
=============
James Worlton
          "We know by means of our intelligence
          that what the intelligence does not
          comprehend is more real than what it
          does comprehend."
                           --Simone Weil