1. Since voice alterations only alter emphasis of arguments of a sentence, John Quijada suggested I only use the emphasis particles (in a certain conlang). Then I thought of 'doctor vs. patient' - converses - and then realized things like 'I own a book' and 'A book belongs to me' are the same thing, except that the latter is 'I own a book' just with emphasis on 'book', whereas the first sentence emphasises 'I'. If emphasis alteration will work for verbs, will it work for nouns?
2. In the same language, I'm stuck on how to derive 'now', 'then (past)', and 'then (subsequent)'. Will deriving them from 'here', 'there', and 'there (over there)' work? Or will it be idiomatic, or not make sense? I think of 'now' as 'at this time' and 'here' as 'at this place', so what about the others? I'm thinking 'then (past)' = 'at that time', 'there' = 'at that place', 'then (subsequent) = 'at yonder time', 'there (over there)' = 'at yonder place'. The third one just doesn't seem right to me.