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Doug Dee wrote:
> So, with that as background, I'd like to ask:  was any substantial part of
> Classical Latin grammar constructed/made up, and opposed to coming from the
> Vulgar Latin of the appropriate period?

Well, other than borrowings from Greek, often pronounced pedantically
with appropriate aspiration, I seem to remember reading that in VL, and
in Old Latin, as well, the nominative plural of 1st declension nouns was
-a:s, identical to the accusative plural, and that -ae was formed by
analogy with the 2nd declension.