Print

Print


On Mon, Jun 14, 2004 at 09:38:33PM +0200, Christophe Grandsire wrote:
> En réponse à Tristan Mc Leay :
>
>
> >One thing I don't get is why the French do their elections proper in two
> >rounds.
>
> Because most elections (at least those that require electing a single
> person) require an absolute majority (i.e. 50% of the valid votes + 1) to
> be decided.

Right.  USA elections are precisely the same way.  If nobody gets
a simple majority of the votes the first round, there is a "run-off"
election between the candidates with the two greatest totals; you can't
win with a simple plurality.   However, given that we effectively have a
two-party system here, one of the candidates from those parties usually
does get the majority in the first round, obviating the run-off.

-Mark