En réponse à John Cowan :

>Classical Latin has an inflected and unanalyzable future, but it's
>suspiciously regular, as if it was formed fairly recently in the
>language.  Anybody know its origin?

I read it originated from a pre-Latin subjunctive, while the Latin 
subjunctive came from the original optative.

Christophe Grandsire.

You need a straight mind to invent a twisted conlang.