On Mon, 4 Oct 2004 22:44:27 -0400, Jeffrey Henning <[log in to unmask]> wrote:

>So one of my conlangs did not historically mark number. Based on contact
>with an "imperial" language, speakers have borrowed that language's plural
>affix and sporadically apply it. Which is more likely...?
>a) It means 2+, just like its source language
>b) It means 2+ and that's emphatic (of some importance in the discourse)
>c) It means "a great many"

I really doubt that they would borrow a plural affix at all. When they never
had a need for it, it's very unlikely that they suddenly change their mind
and borrow one.

Pascal A. Kramm, author of Choton

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