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Quoting "Mark J. Reed" <[log in to unmask]>:

> On Thu, Oct 07, 2004 at 04:15:41AM -0400, J. 'Mach' Wust wrote:
> > Additionally, I guess that at that time, this kind of RP was considered the
> > standard pronunciation of English.
>
> No, no, no.  You would have to go back in time much further than the
> 1950s to find any such thing as any sort of "standard pronunciation of
> English".
>
> Why does this idea keep coming up?  Why is it so hard to accept that such a
> thing simpley does not exist for English?  Haven't the YAEPTs made this
> abundantly clear by now?

Well, wouldn't it have been the "reference" 'lect in England back then?

                                            Andreas