Chris Bates wrote: > Joe wrote: > >> Chris Bates wrote: >> >>> >>> I think this is how lenition started in welsh, as simple phonological >>> conditioning that later became grammatical as well (thanks to words >>> vanishing or being eroded maybe? I'd be interested to know the rule >>> about adjectives following feminine nouns undergoing lenition came >>> about). I don't see why a similar thing couldn't happen with >>> palatization like this over time, but as far as I know no celtic >>> language does this. Do you think its realistic? >>> >>> >> >> Well, yes. It's generally seen as how the thing began. >> >> The adjective after feminine noun(or, indeed, anything), came about >> because feminine nouns ended in a vowel. As far as I know, intervocalic >> consonants were softened in Welsh, largely ignoring word boundaries. >> So, because most Masculine nouns ended in *'-os', and most Feminine in >> *'-a', things following feminine nouns softened, and following masculine >> nouns did not. >> >> > The thing is, lenition doesn't occur when a noun follows another noun > that ends in a vowel does it? Why doesn't it also happen in this > situation? Do you have any idea what stopped it applying to this when > the "softening" effect first started to occur? The only thing I can > think is that something else (possibly an article) blocked it. > > Because, I believe (though am not sure) that Welsh, at some point, dropped its final vowels. Most words ending in vowels are one of three things: a)Inflected forms b)Borrowings or c)Not I'm guessing the c) category ones once had a consonant, but dropped it.