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 --- "Pascal A. Kramm" <[log in to unmask]> [r\VUt_?]:
> If someone here in Germany wants to imitate a French
> dialect, he'll most notably omit the initial "h"
> sound (e.g. turning "hotel" into "otel"), and
> pronounce the German "ch" as "sh".

Is [x] turned to [S] _all_ the time, or only when it
appears palatalized as [C]? As a native speaker of
English, I sometimes catch myself doing the same
thing; i.e., I'd pronounce /machen/ pretty much
perfectly, as ["ma.xn=], but I'd realize the phrase
/ich dächte/ as [IS."dES.t@].

Do the French have any particular problems with the
[x] sound (in its velar allophone, not in its palatal allophone)?