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This is a question I was wondering about. When people
in Europe began to develop artificial languages, why
didn't they make use of Lingua Franca, which from what
I understand existed from the 14th century or so. It
would have seemed natural in a way to adopt something
like that as the basis for an IAL, since it was
already being used by people of different linguistic
backgrounds. 

If the answer is no, I have a couple of ideas about
why that might be so. It's possible that they wanted
to make something scientific and regular, and saw
Lingua Franca as something crass and therefore non
enlightened. Or perhaps they weren't really even aware
of its existence, since even now there seems to be a
lot of uncertainty about it. 

-Jens Wilkinson

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