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Mark J. Reed wrote:

> Carsten> and [w] and [v].
> 
> That is indeed an infamous feature of German (and Slavic) accents. 
> And I totally get the substitution of [v] for [w] when the L1 has no
> [w]. But the reverse phenomenon (use of [w] for |v|) confuses me. 
> Does that really happen outside of Hollywood accents?  If so, why? 
> Hypercorrection?

Probably. When I started learning English, I began to talk of "Darth 
Wader", though I've never had heard it pronounced that way. Even today, 
I sometimes mix them up in that direction.

Senno