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On Wed, 22 Nov 2006 06:58:33 -0800, Donald J. HARLOW <[log in to unmask]> wrote:

>Trouble is, as Zamenhof specifically pointed out in "Lingvaj
>Respondoj", these are _not_ the meanings of the verbal endings when
>used by themselves.

What meaning _did_ he assign them?  Or did he mean they couldn't be used by themselves?