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Den 2007-04-01 00:34:39 skrev Paul Bartlett <[log in to unmask]>:

> For orthographies like Latin, Cyrillic, and Greek which have majuscule /
> minuscule forms this may make sense.  However, many scripts of the world
> have no such pairs of forms; they just have undifferentiated latters.
>
Not to mention scripts like the Arabic one that has different letters if  
they begin, stand in the middle of or at the end of the word. I think it  
is not farfetched to suppose that this depends from the fact that the  
Arabic letters were firsst written with some sort of pens.

Kjell R

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