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On Aug 6, 2007, at 9:32 PM, Mark J. Reed wrote:

> French.  The usual suspect when you ask "why is English more
> romlangish than germanicish in instance X?" :)
>
> On 8/6/07, Henrik Theiling <[log in to unmask]> wrote:
>> Hi!
>>
>> R A Brown writes:
>>> ...
>>> In fact since Sardinian (like Terkunan) did not share in the
>>> palatalization which afflicted Vulgar Lain elsewhere, it would be  
>>> more
>>> logical for Sardinian to retain the old Latin spelling with |c|  
>>> = /k/ in
>>> all environments.
>>> ...
>>
>> You do have a point here.  Quite an obvious one, and I did not  
>> give it
>> enough though I think.  For Sardinian, I suppose current writing is
>> almost completely based on Italian for obvious reasons.  But Terkunan
>> is meant to be a major language of a state (with an army) in a
>> parallel universe so I should come up with a good explanation for
>> the |k|.  Maybe being the only non-palatalising romlang in that
>> universe would be enough, but maybe not.
>>
>> Why does English use 'c' where German uses 'k'?  Say, 'cat'
>> vs. 'Katze'?  French?

That is unlikely. Old English used only <c>.