On Aug 6, 2007, at 9:32 PM, Mark J. Reed wrote: > French. The usual suspect when you ask "why is English more > romlangish than germanicish in instance X?" :) > > On 8/6/07, Henrik Theiling <[log in to unmask]> wrote: >> Hi! >> >> R A Brown writes: >>> ... >>> In fact since Sardinian (like Terkunan) did not share in the >>> palatalization which afflicted Vulgar Lain elsewhere, it would be >>> more >>> logical for Sardinian to retain the old Latin spelling with |c| >>> = /k/ in >>> all environments. >>> ... >> >> You do have a point here. Quite an obvious one, and I did not >> give it >> enough though I think. For Sardinian, I suppose current writing is >> almost completely based on Italian for obvious reasons. But Terkunan >> is meant to be a major language of a state (with an army) in a >> parallel universe so I should come up with a good explanation for >> the |k|. Maybe being the only non-palatalising romlang in that >> universe would be enough, but maybe not. >> >> Why does English use 'c' where German uses 'k'? Say, 'cat' >> vs. 'Katze'? French? That is unlikely. Old English used only <c>.