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Philip Newton wrote:
> On 8/28/07, Eric Christopherson <[log in to unmask]> wrote:
>> Ah, I remembered it! Actually, in the case I was thinking of, the
>> bare plural seems to refer to two, not three. Revelation 12:14 has "a
>> time, and *times*, and half a time" (emphasis added), which Wikipedia
>> ( http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Michael_%28archangel%29 ) says means
>> "three and a half years". I.e. "times" without a specific number is
>> taken to mean "two times". I'm no Biblical scholar, so I don't know
>> how reasonable that is -- and it occurs to me that maybe the original
>> Greek used the dual instead of the plural.
> 
> No -- in fact, I don't think the dual is used anywhere in the NT (nor,
> for that matter, when it more-or-less died out, but it was quite a
> while ago TTBOMK). The text I have reads καιρόν και καιρούς και ήμισυ
> καιρού, with plain plural. (And, interestingly for me, "half of a
> time" at the end, i.e. noun + noun.gen, rather than Modern Greek "a
> half time" with adj + noun.)

Which leads me to wonder (off-topically, I suppose) what the grammar of
(the English) "half a time" is?

-- 
Tristan.