Philip Newton wrote: > On 8/28/07, Eric Christopherson <[log in to unmask]> wrote: >> Ah, I remembered it! Actually, in the case I was thinking of, the >> bare plural seems to refer to two, not three. Revelation 12:14 has "a >> time, and *times*, and half a time" (emphasis added), which Wikipedia >> ( http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Michael_%28archangel%29 ) says means >> "three and a half years". I.e. "times" without a specific number is >> taken to mean "two times". I'm no Biblical scholar, so I don't know >> how reasonable that is -- and it occurs to me that maybe the original >> Greek used the dual instead of the plural. > > No -- in fact, I don't think the dual is used anywhere in the NT (nor, > for that matter, when it more-or-less died out, but it was quite a > while ago TTBOMK). The text I have reads καιρόν και καιρούς και ήμισυ > καιρού, with plain plural. (And, interestingly for me, "half of a > time" at the end, i.e. noun + noun.gen, rather than Modern Greek "a > half time" with adj + noun.) Which leads me to wonder (off-topically, I suppose) what the grammar of (the English) "half a time" is? -- Tristan.