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On 9/6/07, caeruleancentaur <[log in to unmask]> wrote:
> I don't see "doth" as emphatic, but rather as an archaic present tense:
> I do, thou dost, he doth, etc.

It's not the fact that it's "doth" instead of "does" that makes it
emphatic, but the fact that it's there at all.  Why "doth magnify"
instead of just "magnifieth"?  In modern English, at least, the use of
 "do" as an auxiliary in a positive statement is an emphatic device.

-- 
Mark J. Reed <[log in to unmask]>