Print

Print


In a message dated 5/1/2008 17:55:21 PM Central Daylight Time, 
[log in to unmask] writes:


>  I've heard
> >> people use it as a word that didn't communicate with each other
> >> (so they couldn't have gotten it from one another).
> >>
> >
> > Could you rephrase that?
> 
> 
> No.  (Tempted to leave it at that.)  The relative clause comes at
> the end.  Certainly English can do that, can't it?  Moro does it.
> 
> -David
> 

"... a word that didn't communicate with each other ... " makes no sense to 
me.  If "didn't communicate with each other" refers to "people", then it's 
rather odd.  
Are you saying that it's the same as "I've heard people who didn't 
communicate with each other use it as a word"?

Just because Moro can do something, doesn't mean English (or any other 
language) can also do it.

stevo   </HTML>