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Syntactically, the deed done is the patient of the verb "do".
Semantically, it happens to be an action, but that's irrelevant to the
syntax.  As for the semantic patient, AFAIK there's no standard term
for a "nomen indirect objectionis" that represents an oblique
beneficiary of the verb...

On 4/21/09, caeruleancentaur <[log in to unmask]> wrote:
> Does it really matter what the synonyms for "do" are in the last two
> sentences?  The verb "do" still doesn't require a preposition.
>
> Charlie
>
> --- In [log in to unmask], Kelvin Jackson <kechpaja@...> wrote:
>>
>> Okay—it only needs the preposition in some cases. What about "I did
>> it to him"? And I still think that deed in your first sentence, while
>> a grammatical object, is really part of the action. In the other two,
>> "do" means more like "complete" (or "clean" in the third).
>>
>> On Apr 20, 2009, at 11:50 PM, caeruleancentaur wrote:
>>
>> > --- In [log in to unmask], Kelvin Jackson <kechpaja@> wrote:
>> >> ...unlike do which requires a preposition to take an object.
>> >
>> > I did the deed.
>> > I'm doing my homework.
>> > She did the dishes.
>> >
>> > No preposition required.
>> >
>> > Charlie
>>
>

-- 
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Mark J. Reed <[log in to unmask]>