On Wed, Apr 22, 2009 at 11:33 AM, R A Brown <[log in to unmask]> wrote: [snip] > With the older set of verbs ('strong verbs') we find the perfective stem is > the basic, and the other two are derived from it, e.g. the verb "to leave" > perfective: lip- > imperfective: leip- > perfect: leloip- > (The verb uses ablaut inherited from PIE to derive the different stem; the > perfect stem was also marked with a form of initial reduplication) > > The later set of verbs ('weak verbs') take the imperfective stem as the > basic one, e.g. "to loosen" > imperfective: ly- > perfective: lys- > perfect: lelyk- Wouldn't it, from a diachronic perspective at least, make more sense to call the imperfective form basic in the strong verbs too? Indo-European zero grades are supposed to have come to be by loss of vowels in unaccented positions, not? -- Andreas Johansson Why can't you be a non-conformist just like everybody else?