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On Wed, Apr 22, 2009 at 11:33 AM, R A Brown <[log in to unmask]> wrote:
[snip]
> With the older set of verbs ('strong verbs') we find the perfective stem is
> the basic, and the other two are derived from it, e.g. the verb "to leave"
>  perfective: lip-
> imperfective: leip-
>     perfect: leloip-
> (The verb uses ablaut inherited from PIE to derive the different stem; the
> perfect stem was also marked with a form of initial reduplication)
>
> The later set of verbs ('weak verbs') take the imperfective stem as the
> basic one, e.g. "to loosen"
> imperfective: ly-
>  perfective: lys-
>     perfect: lelyk-

Wouldn't it, from a diachronic perspective at least, make more sense
to call the imperfective form basic in the strong verbs too?
Indo-European zero grades are supposed to have come to be by loss of
vowels in unaccented positions, not?

-- 
Andreas Johansson

Why can't you be a non-conformist just like everybody else?