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2009/5/6 Christophe Grandsire-Koevoets <[log in to unmask]>:
> Yet Modern Greek does (actually modern Greek corresponds to choice 5 here,
> with the accent written down on every polysyllabic word, even if it could be
> easily inferred from the form of the word). True, it has gone through a
> spelling reform (the monotonic spelling), but even the polytonic spelling
> from before the reform actually marked the stress on every polysyllabic
> word. It just did so with various accents that originally marked something
> else (Ancient Greek's pitch accent) .

Polytonic even marked the stress on every monosyllabic phonological
word - thus letting you distinguish clitics due to the lack of accent
mark.

(Monotonic still does this optionally in order to avoid ambiguity: Η
δασκάλα μου είπε could be either "My teacher said" or "The teacher
said to me", while Η δασκάλα μού είπε is unambiguously the second. And
in polytonic the μου would have been unaccented if the former meaning
were intended, too; only in the latter meaning would it have received
an accent.)

Cheers,
-- 
Philip Newton <[log in to unmask]>