On Wed, Jun 24, 2009 at 5:18 PM, Kelvin Jackson<[log in to unmask]> wrote:
> In my (relatively new) language Laíweon ni fWairgithea, both verbs and nouns
> inflect for tense, and the tense of the different components of a sentence
> may not always be the same (for instance, if someone does something which
> affects somebody else much later).

Can you clarify and give some examples?   E.g., an example where the
subject would have a different tense than the verb, or where the
object would have a different tense than the subject and/or the verb?


I(past) sent(past) him(future) a letter (past)

where the sending has already happened but him(future) receiveing it
hasn't happened yet?  Or

Her butler(present) is poisoning(present) her(future)

where the poison hasn't started affecting her yet.

....But I can't think of any instance where, in a language like yours,
I would mark the subject with a different tense than the verb.

> Can anyone think of anything like this in a
> natlang?

No, but my knowledge of natlangs is not vast.   I think there are some
languages that have more extensive, productive use of quasi-tense-like
affixes like English "ex-~" and "~-elect" as in "ex-wife" and
"president-elect", but I don't know of any that do what you describe
your conlang as doing.

Jim Henry