Eric Christopherson wrote: > I've wondered many times, so I guess I might as well ask, in case anyone > knows: > 1. Do any languages have their 1st-/2nd-/3rd-person pronouns > transparently related to their proximal/medial/distal demonstratives? My loglang, Cenyaci, has a phonosemantic foundation where there is a relationship between them. SASXSEK doesn't relate them to demonstratives but there is a relationship between basic prepositions, pronouns and adverbs of time. It's something I started early in the development but it's no entirely complete because it proved to be impractical, though the legacy of it still exists. M = orgin mo = I, me mu = from mi = former, previous ma = because F = destination fo = you fu = to(ward) fi = later, future fa = then The third person is "lo", but it was a late addition. Originally I had no third-person and instead relied on demonstratives. I still recommend using demonstratives instead of "lo" in situations where there may be some ambiguity. > 2. Do personal pronouns ever derive historically from demonstratives, or > vice versa? ISTR quite a few examples of natlangs that have 3rd persons orginating from demonstratives, likewise for definite articles. > 3. Does person/number/gender agreement marking on verbs, or possessive > marking on nouns, ever derive from demonstratives? I can't think of any example off hand.