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On Nov 16, 2009, at 1◊26 AM, John Lategan wrote:
> 
> So, now for my question:
> Can a parent language exist as an every-day language in one nation;  while
> its daughter languages are spoken in neighbouring nations?
> rephrased: Does a parent language have to die for its daughters to be used?
> A real-world example would be: Latin being spoken at the same time as
> French, Italian, Romanian &c.

Yes (consider Afrikaans and Dutch).  Most of the modern examples
are creoles (e.g. all the languages which contributed to Tok Pisin are
still spoken), but in the past I'm sure this was bound to happen.  Note
that it's fairly controversial when one language ceases to be one
language and starts to be another.  That is, you can say by X date,
what we consider modern English was being spoken in England, but
it's about impossible to say at this instant, it was modern English,
and before that, middle.  And the same goes for when languages
diverge.

> My second question is:
> If a language evolves, is it likely that it will loose case in favour of
> prepositions?
> I know Icelandic still has 'intense'-case, but solely because it is so
> isolated and wasn't influenced. If a culture is not isolated, and the
> language evolves, will it loose most of its cases (eg: the Causal, ablative,
> instumental and comitative cases)?

That's happened with many European languages, certainly, but
is by no means the case with all language.  With languages in the
Finno-Ugric family, there are actually instances where what was
once a case becomes a postposition and what was once a postposition
becomes a case.  And though I can't think up a specific example
off hand, I'd say the usual case for a creole is to start out with no
case, and then for case to kind of crop up over time (and here
we're talking about morphological case, not syntactic).

-David
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"sunly eleSkarez ygralleryf ydZZixelje je ox2mejze."
"No eternal reward will forgive us now for wasting the dawn."

-Jim Morrison

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LCS Member Since 2007
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