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On Mon, Nov 23, 2009 at 10:51 AM, Tony Harris <[log in to unmask]> wrote:
> I don't think "people" is the subject there.  "We" are the subject, and "the
> people" is in apposition to that, defining which "we" is speaking.

That's a grammatical detail of the way English does it, not a semantic
distinction.  The subject is both "we" and "the people"; both have the
same referent.  So the question is, in a language that marks person on
the verb, why not just have "the people BE(1pl)" and do away with the
apposition?

--
Mark J. Reed <[log in to unmask]>