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--- On Tue, 5/4/10, R A Brown <[log in to unmask]> wrote:

> On the other hand, the glo'al stop is, I admit, more likely
> than not to be heard among poorly educated Brits.  But
> it will be one of several features, e.g. pronouncing /T/ as
> [f]; using either _was_ (in southern England & in Wales)
> or _were_ (in northern England - never really sure the
> Scots) as an invariant past tense of "to be"; confusing
> preterite and perfect participle forms, such as "I done it",
> "I seen him yesterday", "I've wrote to him already" etc.,
> etc.
> 
Medial glo'al stop doesn't occur AFAIK in US speech. Nor [f] for /T/ (maybe in black speech?). But _was_ (not 'were') and the other features do, and have for a long time. Whether they're holdovers from all the ancient Scots/Irish/Anglo immigrations, or independent developments, is another matter.

In my grade school classes in the 1940s, those features were prominent in the speech of kids clearly of non-middle-class backgrounds (but of all the local ethnicities, including German and Scandinavian). Along with "ain't", the bane of the teachers :-)))). And they're still commonly heard.

My mother once called my father's office and asked if he'd arrived. She got his 2nd or 3rd in command, who answered "he hasn't came in yet". That was enough to convince her that he was an illiterate boor. I got to know the man during summer jobs in the office, and he was a quite decent guy, educated and articulate enough, and I concluded that his statement was more likely just a slip of the tongue....(Dear Mother, in case you can't tell, was a bit of a snob....)