On May 4, 2010, at 11:00 AM, Roger Mills wrote:

> --- On Tue, 5/4/10, R A Brown <[log in to unmask]> wrote:
>> On the other hand, the glo'al stop is, I admit, more likely
>> than not to be heard among poorly educated Brits.  But
>> it will be one of several features, e.g. pronouncing /T/ as
>> [f]; using either _was_ (in southern England & in Wales)
>> or _were_ (in northern England - never really sure the
>> Scots) as an invariant past tense of "to be"; confusing
>> preterite and perfect participle forms, such as "I done it",
>> "I seen him yesterday", "I've wrote to him already" etc.,
>> etc.
> Medial glo'al stop doesn't occur AFAIK in US speech. Nor [f] for /T/ (maybe in black speech?). But _was_ (not 'were') and the other features do, and have for a long time. Whether they're holdovers from all the ancient Scots/Irish/Anglo immigrations, or independent developments, is another matter.

Final glottal stop for /t/ does, to some extent. In my speech I think it's mostly an allegro phenomenon, but I'm not sure. Something I've noticed within the last year or so is that I almost always pronounce /t/ as [?] at the end of a word when the next word begins in /w j r/. I'm not sure what would motivate that, or how long I've been doing it, or if other people do the same.

Fairly frequently I notice people pronouncing /tn=/ (as in _kitten_) as [?In] or [?1n] or maybe [?@n]. It seems to me most people who pronounce it like that are in their late teens or early 20s, at least around here.

I actually use a syllabic n and not vowel + n, but I can't tell if the consonant before it is [t] or [?]. When I pay attention to what my tongue's doing as I say /tn=/, there does seem to be alveolar contact before the glottal stop, but a) it doesn't really sound different and b) I'm not sure I articulate it the same in nondeliberate speech.